I’d like to describe a certain interesting and surprising situation that can happen with models of set theory.
Theorem. If set theory is consistent, then there are two models of set theory and for which
- and have the same real numbers
- and have the ordinals and the same cardinals
- But thinks that the continuum hypothesis is true, while thinks that is false.
This is a little strange, since the two models have the set in common and they agree on the cardinal numbers, but thinks that has size and will think that has size . In particular, can well-order the reals in order type and can do so in order-type , even though the two models have the same reals and they agree that these order types have different cardinalities.
Another abstract way to describe what is going on is that even if two models of set theory, even transitive models, agree on which ordinals are cardinals, they needn’t agree on which sets are equinumerous, for sets they have in common, even for the reals.
Let me emphasize that it is the requirement that the models have the same cardinals that makes the problem both subtle and surprising. If you drop that requirement, then the problem is an elementary exercise in forcing: start with any model , and first force to fail in by adding a lot of Cohen reals, then force to by collapsing the continuum to . This second step adds no new reals and forces , and so and will have the same reals, while thinks is true and thinks is false. The problem becomes nontrivial and interesting mainly when you insist that cardinals are not collapsed.
In fact, the situation described in the theorem can be forced over any given model of .
Theorem. Every model of set theory has two set-forcing extensions and for which
- and have the same real numbers
- and have the same cardinals
- But thinks that the continuum hypothesis is true, while thinks that is false.
Proof. Start in any model , and by forcing if necessary, let’s assume holds in . Let be -generic for the forcing to add many Cohen reals. So satisfies and has the same ordinals and cardinals as .
Next, force over using the forcing from to collapse to , forming the extension , where is the generic bijection between those ordinals. Since we used the forcing in , which is countably closed there, it makes sense to consider . In this extension, the forcing and are isomorphic. Since is -generic for the latter, let be the image of this filter in , which is therefore -generic for the former. So . Since the forcing is c.c.c., it follows that also has the same cardinals as and hence also the same as in .
If we now view these extensions as and note that the coutable closure of in implies that adds no new reals over either or , it follows that . So the two models have the same reals and the same cardinals. But has and has , in light of the forcing, and so the proof is complete. QED
Let me prove the following surprising generalization.
Theorem. If is any model of and is the forcing extension obtained by adding many Cohen reals, for some uncountable , then for any other uncountable cardinal , there is another forcing extension where is -generic for the forcing to add many Cohen reals, yet .
Proof. Start in , and let be -generic to collapse to , using the collapse forcing of the ground model . This forcing is countably closed in and therefore does not add reals over . In , the two forcing notions and are isomorphic. Thus, since is -generic for the former poset, it follows that the image is -generic for the latter poset. So is generic over for adding many Cohen reals. By construction, we have , and since doesn’t add reals, it follows that , as desired. QED
I have a vague recollection of having first heard of this problem many years ago, perhaps as a graduate student, although I don’t quite recall where it was or indeed what the construction was — the argument above is my reconstruction (which I have updated and extended from my initial post). If someone could provide a reference in the comments for due credit, I’d be appreciative. The problem appeared a few years ago on MathOverflow.
That is pretty neat.
And I think that I mentioned this on your blog before, CH is not a question about the reals, but rather about the power set of the reals. Nevertheless, having the same reals and the same cardinals is pretty incredible.
How does the power set of the reals changes between the two models?
(Also, you have a minor typo in the proof, you use instead of .)
The two models have different power sets of the reals, and they must, since one of the models has an ordering in type and the other in type , and those orders amount to pairs of reals and hence can be coded in each case with a set of reals.
(Thanks for pointing out the typo, which I’ve now fixed.)
I found the MathOverflow reference: https://mathoverflow.net/a/222710/1946. And follow the links to a post of Asaf’s on math.SE.